An 85-year-old female, typically alert and oriented, is admitted for a hip fracture repair. On post-operative day 2, she becomes acutely confused, disoriented to place and time, and fluctuates between lethargy and agitation. Her vital signs are stable. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management approach for her acute change in mental status?

The correct answer to the question "An 85-year-old female, typically alert and oriented, is admitted for a hip fracture repair. On post-operative day 2, she becomes acutely confused, disoriented to place and time, and fluctuates between lethargy and agitation. Her vital signs are stable. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management approach for her acute change in mental status?" is Option C: Focus on identifying and treating underlying reversible causes..

The other options — A) Start a low-dose benzodiazepine to manage agitation., B) Order a stat MRI of the brain to rule out stroke., D) Diagnose new-onset dementia and consult neurology. — are incorrect for this USMLE Exam Prep question. As explained above: The patient's acute, fluctuating mental status change is characteristic of delirium. The most crucial initial step is to identify and address precipitating factors such as infection, medication side …