🏥 USMLE Exam Prep

An 82-year-old female undergoes an elective total knee arthroplasty. On post-operative day 2, she becomes acutely disoriented, pulling at her IV lines and hallucinating, which was not present pre-operatively. Her vital signs are stable, and labs are within normal limits. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A Order a head CT scan to rule out stroke.
B Administer haloperidol intravenously.
C Reorient the patient, mobilize early, and ensure adequate pain control and sleep.
D Initiate a benzodiazepine taper.

✓ Correct Answer: Option C

Post-operative delirium is common in elderly patients. The initial management should focus on non-pharmacologic interventions, including reorientation, early mobilization, ensuring adequate pain control, optimizing sleep hygiene, and addressing sensory deficits. Pharmacologic intervention is reserved for severe agitation.

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