A 78-year-old male with a history of heart failure presents with fever, productive cough, and dyspnea. Chest X-ray shows a right middle lobe infiltrate. His vital signs are T 101.8°F, HR 105 bpm, BP 100/60 mmHg, RR 28 bpm, O2 saturation 90% on room air. He is disoriented to place. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate management strategy?
✓ Correct Answer: Option C
This patient has multiple severe CAP criteria (confusion, hypotension, hypoxemia, age >65, comorbidities) mandating inpatient admission. Empiric IV ceftriaxone and azithromycin is appropriate for hospitalized CAP, providing broad-spectrum coverage.