A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of right-sided weakness and aphasia. His symptoms began 2 hours ago. His NIH Stroke Scale score is 15. A non-contrast head CT scan shows no evidence of hemorrhage. His blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
✓ Correct Answer: Option B
The patient presents within the therapeutic window (typically 4.5 hours from symptom onset) for ischemic stroke and has no contraindications (no hemorrhage on CT, BP within limits). Intravenous alteplase is the appropriate treatment to restore blood flow.