A 70-year-old man with a history of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) presents to the emergency department with progressively worsening dyspnea, orthopnea, and lower extremity edema over the past 3 days. On examination, he has bilateral crackles, an S3 gallop, and jugular venous distention. His blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic management?
✓ Correct Answer: Option B
This patient presents with acute decompensated heart failure due to volume overload. Intravenous loop diuretics like furosemide are the mainstay of initial treatment to reduce preload, alleviate pulmonary congestion, and improve symptoms.