🏥 USMLE Exam Prep

A 70-year-old male is admitted with a large anterior STEMI. Despite immediate percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and revascularization of his LAD, he develops severe dyspnea, crackles on lung auscultation, and his blood pressure drops to 85/55 mmHg. Echocardiography reveals severe left ventricular dysfunction (EF 20%). What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A Initiate intravenous nitroglycerin.
B Administer intravenous furosemide.
C Initiate an inotropic agent like dobutamine.
D Prepare for intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) placement.

✓ Correct Answer: Option C

The patient is in cardiogenic shock complicating a STEMI. Inotropic agents like dobutamine are used to improve cardiac output and maintain perfusion. Vasodilators (nitroglycerin) and diuretics (furosemide) are contraindicated due to hypotension. IABP is a supportive measure, not typically the first-line pharmacologic intervention.

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