A 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes presents to the emergency department with altered mental status. Her blood glucose is 850 mg/dL, serum osmolality is 330 mOsm/kg, and she has no ketones in her urine or serum. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?
✓ Correct Answer: Option B
This patient's presentation is consistent with Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS). Initial management prioritizes aggressive fluid resuscitation with isotonic saline to correct severe dehydration.