🏥 USMLE Exam Prep

A 68-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with vaginal bleeding for the past 2 months. She has a history of obesity and hypertension. Her last menstrual period was 15 years ago. Physical examination reveals a normal-sized uterus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A Transvaginal ultrasound
B Observation with follow-up in 3 months
C Combined oral contraceptive pills
D Reassurance that this is a normal part of aging

✓ Correct Answer: Option A

Any postmenopausal bleeding requires prompt investigation to rule out endometrial cancer, especially with risk factors like obesity and hypertension. A transvaginal ultrasound to assess endometrial thickness is the appropriate initial diagnostic step. Further workup (e.g., endometrial biopsy) depends on the ultrasound findings.

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