A 68-year-old male is admitted to the ICU following abdominal surgery. On post-operative day 2, he becomes acutely confused, disoriented, and agitated. He is pulling at his lines and attempting to get out of bed. His vitals are stable, and labs are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step for his delirium?

The correct answer to the question "A 68-year-old male is admitted to the ICU following abdominal surgery. On post-operative day 2, he becomes acutely confused, disoriented, and agitated. He is pulling at his lines and attempting to get out of bed. His vitals are stable, and labs are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step for his delirium?" is Option C: Assess and address reversible factors such as pain, bladder distention, or sleep deprivation..

The other options — A) Administer IV haloperidol to sedate the patient., B) Restrain the patient to prevent self-harm., D) Order an urgent head CT to rule out stroke. — are incorrect for this USMLE Exam Prep question. As explained above: The initial management of delirium involves identifying and addressing reversible factors (e.g., pain, constipation, urinary retention, sleep deprivation, electrolyte imbalances, medication side effe…