A 62-year-old man, two days post-laparoscopic cholecystectomy, develops hypotension unresponsive to fluid resuscitation, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia. He has a history of long-term prednisone use for polymyalgia rheumatica, which was tapered pre-operatively. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate treatment?
✓ Correct Answer: Option B
This patient likely has secondary adrenal insufficiency from chronic steroid use, manifesting as an adrenal crisis. Stress-dose corticosteroids (e.g., dexamethasone or hydrocortisone) are crucial for immediate cortisol replacement.