🏥 USMLE Exam Prep

A 62-year-old male presents with left lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, and constipation for 2 days. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis shows uncomplicated diverticulitis with no evidence of abscess or perforation. He is tolerating oral intake. What is the most appropriate outpatient management?

A Urgent surgical consultation for colectomy.
B Intravenous antibiotics and hospital admission.
C Oral antibiotics and clear liquid diet.
D Colonoscopy within 24 hours.

✓ Correct Answer: Option C

For uncomplicated diverticulitis without signs of sepsis, peritonitis, or inability to tolerate oral intake, outpatient management with oral antibiotics and a clear liquid diet is appropriate.

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