🏥 USMLE Exam Prep

A 62-year-old male presents with acute onset substernal chest pain, radiating to his left arm, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath. ECG shows ST-segment elevations in leads II, III, aVF. He has no known allergies. What is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient?

A Administer intravenous furosemide.
B Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics.
C Administer aspirin, nitroglycerin, and arrange for emergent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).
D Order a stat cardiac MRI.

✓ Correct Answer: Option C

This patient presents with an ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Initial management includes aspirin, nitroglycerin, and immediate reperfusion therapy, with primary PCI being preferred if available within guidelines to restore blood flow.

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