🏥 USMLE Exam Prep

A 62-year-old male presents with 30 minutes of crushing substernal chest pain radiating to his left arm. ECG shows 3mm ST-elevations in leads V2-V4. He has no contraindications to reperfusion therapy. After initial aspirin, oxygen, and nitrates, what is the most appropriate next definitive management step?

A Intravenous unfractionated heparin
B Beta-blocker administration
C Primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
D Fibrinolytic therapy

✓ Correct Answer: Option C

For STEMI, primary PCI is the preferred reperfusion strategy if it can be performed within 90 minutes (door-to-balloon time) or 120 minutes of first medical contact at a PCI-capable center, offering superior outcomes.

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