A 60-year-old male undergoing treatment for deep vein thrombosis develops a sudden drop in platelet count from 250,000 to 70,000/µL on hospital day 5, along with new skin necrosis at an injection site. He is currently receiving unfractionated heparin. What is the most appropriate immediate management step?

✓ Correct Answer: Option B

This clinical picture is highly suggestive of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The immediate management involves discontinuing all heparin products (including flushes) and initiating a non-heparin anticoagulant, such as argatroban or bivalirudin, to prevent thrombotic complications.