🏥 USMLE Exam Prep

A 60-year-old male presents with acute onset unilateral leg swelling, pain, and erythema. He recently had abdominal surgery. Physical examination reveals a swollen, tender, and warm left calf. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic and therapeutic step?

A Start oral warfarin and monitor INR.
B Obtain a lower extremity duplex ultrasound and initiate therapeutic anticoagulation.
C Administer a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
D Order a D-dimer test and if negative, reassure the patient.

✓ Correct Answer: Option B

The patient has signs and symptoms highly suggestive of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), especially post-surgery. A duplex ultrasound is the diagnostic test of choice. Given the high clinical suspicion, therapeutic anticoagulation should be initiated promptly while awaiting or immediately after confirming the diagnosis.

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