A 58-year-old female with a 5-year history of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus, managed with metformin, presents for a follow-up. Her last HbA1c was 8.2%. She reports occasional blurry vision and numbness in her feet. Her current BMI is 31 kg/m². Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her diabetes management?
✓ Correct Answer: Option C
An SGLT2 inhibitor is appropriate given her uncontrolled HbA1c, high BMI, and potential for microvascular complications, offering cardiovascular and renal benefits beyond glycemic control.