A 55-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension presents with gradual onset of visual loss, floaters, and 'cobwebs' in one eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals vitreous hemorrhage and neovascularization. There is no retinal detachment. What is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?

✓ Correct Answer: Option A

The patient presents with symptoms and signs of proliferative diabetic retinopathy, including neovascularization and vitreous hemorrhage. Panretinal laser photocoagulation (PRP) is the standard treatment to ablate ischemic retina, reduce neovascularization, and prevent further vision loss and complications.