A 55-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of left lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, and nausea. Physical examination reveals localized tenderness in the left lower quadrant without rebound or guarding. Labs show leukocytosis. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis reveals colonic diverticula with localized wall thickening and stranding. What is the most appropriate initial management?

The correct answer to the question "A 55-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of left lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, and nausea. Physical examination reveals localized tenderness in the left lower quadrant without rebound or guarding. Labs show leukocytosis. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis reveals colonic diverticula with localized wall thickening and stranding. What is the most appropriate initial management?" is Option B: Outpatient oral antibiotics and clear liquid diet.

The other options — A) Emergent surgical consultation for colectomy, C) Colonoscopy to assess for malignancy, D) Intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and NPO status — are incorrect for this USMLE Exam Prep question. As explained above: Uncomplicated diverticulitis, characterized by localized inflammation without perforation or abscess, is typically managed with outpatient oral antibiotics and bowel rest (clear liquid diet). IV anti…