A 50-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of left lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever (100.8°F), and nausea. CT scan reveals uncomplicated diverticulitis without abscess or perforation. He is tolerating oral intake and has stable vital signs. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Question

BrainForge Quiz · Accepted Answer

C) Outpatient oral antibiotics, clear liquid diet, and pain control.. Uncomplicated diverticulitis in a stable patient tolerating oral intake can typically be managed in an outpatient setting with oral antibiotics, a clear liquid diet (gradually advancing), and pain control. Surgical resection is for complicated cases, and colonoscopy is contraindicated during acute inflammation.

A 50-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of left lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever (100.8°F), and nausea. CT scan reveals uncomplicated diverticulitis without abscess or perforation. He is tolerating oral intake and has stable vital signs. What is the most appropriate initial management?

✓ Correct Answer: Option C

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