A 50-year-old male presents with acute onset severe pain, swelling, and erythema of his right great toe, which started suddenly last night. He denies trauma. He has a history of hypertension. Arthrocentesis shows negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
✓ Correct Answer: Option D
The patient presents with an acute gout flare, confirmed by arthrocentesis. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like indomethacin are considered first-line therapy for rapid symptom relief unless contraindicated. Allopurinol and probenecid are for long-term prophylaxis and should not be initiated during an acute flare.
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This 2-level USMLE Exam Prep question from the Step 3 – Clinical Management topic is part of BrainForge Quiz's free exam preparation library. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the underlying concept, not just memorize the answer.
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