A 45-year-old woman presents with chronic fatigue, weight loss, nausea, and diffuse skin hyperpigmentation, especially in sun-exposed areas and palmar creases. Laboratory tests show low serum cortisol and high ACTH. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?
✓ Correct Answer: Option B
This patient presents with classic symptoms and lab findings of primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease). The most appropriate initial treatment is glucocorticoid replacement, typically with hydrocortisone.