🏥 USMLE Exam Prep

A 45-year-old male with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted for pancreatitis. On hospital day 3, he develops generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Vitals include BP 150/95 mmHg, HR 110 bpm, Temp 37.8°C (100°F). Labs show normal electrolytes. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment?

A Intravenous phenytoin.
B Intravenous lorazepam.
C Oral carbamazepine.
D Intravenous propofol.

✓ Correct Answer: Option B

The patient is experiencing alcohol withdrawal seizures, a form of status epilepticus. Benzodiazepines, such as lorazepam, are the first-line treatment for acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome and associated seizures, as they enhance GABAergic inhibition and cross-tolerance with alcohol.

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