A 45-year-old male presents with acute onset of fever, headache, nuchal rigidity, and altered mental status. Lumbar puncture reveals cloudy cerebrospinal fluid with elevated protein, decreased glucose, and neutrophilic pleocytosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate empiric antibiotic regimen?

✓ Correct Answer: Option B

This presentation is highly suggestive of bacterial meningitis. Empiric therapy for adults includes vancomycin (for resistant S. pneumoniae), a third-generation cephalosporin like ceftriaxone (for N. meningitidis, H. influenzae), and ampicillin (for Listeria, especially in older adults or immunocompromised).