A 45-year-old female is admitted to the intensive care unit with septic shock secondary to pneumonia. Her blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg despite receiving 3 liters of intravenous fluids. She is intubated and mechanically ventilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her management?

The correct answer to the question "A 45-year-old female is admitted to the intensive care unit with septic shock secondary to pneumonia. Her blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg despite receiving 3 liters of intravenous fluids. She is intubated and mechanically ventilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her management?" is Option B: Initiate a continuous infusion of norepinephrine.

The other options — A) Administer a broad-spectrum oral antibiotic, C) Order a CT scan of the chest, D) Administer a bolus of intravenous furosemide — are incorrect for this USMLE Exam Prep question. As explained above: For septic shock refractory to initial fluid resuscitation, vasopressors are indicated to maintain adequate mean arterial pressure. Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor for septic shock. Oral…