🏥 USMLE Exam Prep

A 45-year-old female is admitted to the intensive care unit with septic shock secondary to pneumonia. Her blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg despite receiving 3 liters of intravenous fluids. She is intubated and mechanically ventilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her management?

A Administer a broad-spectrum oral antibiotic
B Initiate a continuous infusion of norepinephrine
C Order a CT scan of the chest
D Administer a bolus of intravenous furosemide

✓ Correct Answer: Option B

For septic shock refractory to initial fluid resuscitation, vasopressors are indicated to maintain adequate mean arterial pressure. Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor for septic shock. Oral antibiotics are inappropriate for critical illness. Imaging is important but not the immediate priority for hemodynamic instability. Furosemide would worsen hypotension.

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