🏥 USMLE Exam Prep

A 40-year-old woman is admitted with sudden onset confusion, fever, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (schistocytes on smear, elevated LDH, decreased haptoglobin), thrombocytopenia (platelets 25,000/µL), and acute kidney injury. A diagnosis of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP) is suspected. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment for this condition?

A Platelet transfusion
B Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)
C Plasma exchange (plasmapheresis)
D High-dose corticosteroids

✓ Correct Answer: Option C

Plasma exchange is the definitive and life-saving treatment for TTP, removing autoantibodies against ADAMTS13 and providing functional ADAMTS13. Platelet transfusions are contraindicated as they can worsen thrombosis.

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