A 40-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He is hypotensive (BP 80/50 mmHg), tachycardic (HR 120 bpm), and has a distended, tender abdomen. A focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) examination reveals free fluid in the abdomen. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
✓ Correct Answer: Option A
An unstable trauma patient with signs of intra-abdominal hemorrhage (hypotension, tachycardia, distended/tender abdomen, free fluid on FAST) requires immediate surgical exploration via urgent laparotomy to identify and control the source of bleeding.