A 35-year-old woman with a 5-year history of Crohn's disease, currently well-controlled on mesalamine, presents with a 2-week history of increased abdominal pain, non-bloody diarrhea (4-5 times/day), and fatigue. She has no fever, weight loss, or signs of obstruction. Endoscopy shows mild to moderate inflammation in the terminal ileum. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?
✓ Correct Answer: Option B
For mild to moderate Crohn's flares not responding to 5-ASA agents (like mesalamine), a short course of oral corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone or budesonide) is the next appropriate step to induce remission. Immunomodulators and biologics are for more severe or refractory cases.