A 34-year-old primigravid woman at 36 weeks gestation presents with persistent headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 160/105 mmHg. Urinalysis shows 3+ proteinuria. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ bilaterally with clonus. Fetal heart tracing is reassuring. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

The correct answer to the question "A 34-year-old primigravid woman at 36 weeks gestation presents with persistent headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 160/105 mmHg. Urinalysis shows 3+ proteinuria. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ bilaterally with clonus. Fetal heart tracing is reassuring. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?" is Option B: Initiate magnesium sulfate intravenously.

The other options — A) Administer a nifedipine extended-release tablet, C) Schedule for elective induction of labor at 37 weeks, D) Perform an immediate C-section — are incorrect for this USMLE Exam Prep question. As explained above: This patient has severe preeclampsia with features concerning for impending eclampsia (hyperreflexia, clonus). Magnesium sulfate is the definitive treatment for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclam…