A 34-year-old G1P0 at 36 weeks gestation presents with new-onset blood pressure of 165/105 mmHg, 3+ proteinuria, persistent headache, and epigastric pain. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+. What is the most appropriate immediate management?
✓ Correct Answer: Option B
This patient has pre-eclampsia with severe features. Immediate management includes seizure prophylaxis with magnesium sulfate and preparation for delivery, as delivery is the definitive treatment. Blood pressure control is also important, but magnesium sulfate and planning for delivery are paramount.
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This 4-level USMLE Exam Prep question from the Step 3 – Clinical Management topic is part of BrainForge Quiz's free exam preparation library. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the underlying concept, not just memorize the answer.
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