🏥 USMLE Exam Prep

A 34-year-old G1P0 at 36 weeks gestation presents with new-onset blood pressure of 165/105 mmHg, 3+ proteinuria, persistent headache, and epigastric pain. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

A Initiate oral labetalol and admit for observation
B Administer magnesium sulfate and prepare for delivery
C Order a 24-hour urine collection for protein and serial blood pressure monitoring
D Start intravenous hydralazine for blood pressure control only

✓ Correct Answer: Option B

This patient has pre-eclampsia with severe features. Immediate management includes seizure prophylaxis with magnesium sulfate and preparation for delivery, as delivery is the definitive treatment. Blood pressure control is also important, but magnesium sulfate and planning for delivery are paramount.

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