A 32-year-old primigravida at 36 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg, 3+ proteinuria, persistent headache, and epigastric pain. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+. Fetal heart rate monitoring is reassuring. What is the most appropriate management plan?

The correct answer to the question "A 32-year-old primigravida at 36 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg, 3+ proteinuria, persistent headache, and epigastric pain. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+. Fetal heart rate monitoring is reassuring. What is the most appropriate management plan?" is Option B: Immediate induction of labor and magnesium sulfate.

The other options — A) Outpatient management with close monitoring, C) Oral nifedipine and expectant management until 39 weeks, D) Intravenous labetalol and discharge once blood pressure controlled — are incorrect for this USMLE Exam Prep question. As explained above: This patient has severe preeclampsia with severe features (BP >160/110, headache, epigastric pain, hyperreflexia). Given her gestational age and severe features, immediate delivery is indicated, alon…