🏥 USMLE Exam Prep

A 32-year-old primigravida at 36 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg, 3+ proteinuria, persistent headache, and epigastric pain. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+. Fetal heart rate monitoring is reassuring. What is the most appropriate management plan?

A Outpatient management with close monitoring
B Immediate induction of labor and magnesium sulfate
C Oral nifedipine and expectant management until 39 weeks
D Intravenous labetalol and discharge once blood pressure controlled

✓ Correct Answer: Option B

This patient has severe preeclampsia with severe features (BP >160/110, headache, epigastric pain, hyperreflexia). Given her gestational age and severe features, immediate delivery is indicated, along with magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis.

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