A 32-year-old primigravida at 34 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 165/110 mmHg, headache, and epigastric pain. Urine dipstick shows 3+ proteinuria. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ bilaterally with clonus. Fetal heart rate monitoring is reassuring. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

✓ Correct Answer: Option B

This patient has preeclampsia with severe features. Initial management prioritizes seizure prophylaxis with magnesium sulfate and blood pressure control with antihypertensives (e.g., labetalol, hydralazine). While delivery is the definitive treatment, maternal stabilization is first. Renal biopsy or immediate induction without stabilization are not optimal.