A 32-year-old primigravida at 34 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 165/110 mmHg, headache, and epigastric pain. Urine dipstick shows 3+ proteinuria. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ bilaterally with clonus. Fetal heart rate monitoring is reassuring. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

The correct answer to the question "A 32-year-old primigravida at 34 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 165/110 mmHg, headache, and epigastric pain. Urine dipstick shows 3+ proteinuria. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ bilaterally with clonus. Fetal heart rate monitoring is reassuring. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?" is Option B: Initiate magnesium sulfate infusion and administer antihypertensives..

The other options — A) Administer labetalol and prepare for emergent cesarean delivery., C) Order a renal biopsy to assess kidney damage., D) Induce labor immediately using oxytocin. — are incorrect for this USMLE Exam Prep question. As explained above: This patient has preeclampsia with severe features. Initial management prioritizes seizure prophylaxis with magnesium sulfate and blood pressure control with antihypertensives (e.g., labetalol, hydra…