A 32-year-old pregnant woman, G1P0 at 36 weeks gestation, presents with a headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 170/110 mmHg, and urine dipstick shows 3+ proteinuria. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ bilaterally with clonus. What is the most appropriate next step in management to prevent complications?
✓ Correct Answer: Option B
This patient has severe preeclampsia with signs of central nervous system irritability. Magnesium sulfate is crucial to prevent eclamptic seizures, which is the most immediate life-threatening complication. Blood pressure control and delivery follow stabilization.