A 30-year-old woman experiences sudden onset blurry vision and pain with eye movement. Two months later, she develops numbness and weakness in her right leg, which partially resolves. An MRI of the brain and spinal cord reveals multiple T2 hyperintense lesions in the periventricular white matter and cervical spinal cord, with some enhancing lesions. Which of the following is the most appropriate disease-modifying therapy for long-term management?

The correct answer to the question "A 30-year-old woman experiences sudden onset blurry vision and pain with eye movement. Two months later, she develops numbness and weakness in her right leg, which partially resolves. An MRI of the brain and spinal cord reveals multiple T2 hyperintense lesions in the periventricular white matter and cervical spinal cord, with some enhancing lesions. Which of the following is the most appropriate disease-modifying therapy for long-term management?" is Option B: Interferon beta.

The other options — A) Intravenous methylprednisolone, C) Acetaminophen, D) Plasmapheresis — are incorrect for this USMLE Exam Prep question. As explained above: This patient's presentation with disseminated neurological symptoms in space and time, along with MRI findings, is consistent with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. Interferon beta is a common …