A 30-year-old primigravida at 38 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 165/105 mmHg, 3+ proteinuria on dipstick, and severe headache. She then has a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate pharmacologic intervention to manage the seizure?
✓ Correct Answer: Option B
Intravenous magnesium sulfate is the first-line agent for the prevention and treatment of seizures in eclampsia. Labetalol and nifedipine are used for blood pressure control, and phenytoin is not the preferred anticonvulsant for eclampsia.