🏥 USMLE Exam Prep

A 30-year-old primigravida at 36 weeks gestation presents with new-onset hypertension (BP 160/110 mmHg) and proteinuria. She reports persistent headache and visual disturbances. Fetal monitoring shows reassuring patterns. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

A Immediate induction of labor
B Magnesium sulfate administration
C Oral nifedipine for blood pressure control
D Expectant management with close monitoring

✓ Correct Answer: Option B

Severe preeclampsia, indicated by severe hypertension and symptoms like headache or visual disturbances, requires seizure prophylaxis with magnesium sulfate to prevent eclampsia. Delivery is definitive, but seizure prophylaxis is critical first.

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