🏥 USMLE Exam Prep

A 30-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents with bloody diarrhea 10 times a day, fever (101.5°F), tachycardia (HR 105 bpm), and abdominal tenderness. His Hgb is 9.0 g/dL. He has been on oral mesalamine without improvement. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A Increase oral mesalamine dose
B Initiate oral prednisone
C Admit and start intravenous corticosteroids
D Schedule for urgent colectomy

✓ Correct Answer: Option C

A severe ulcerative colitis flare, characterized by frequent bloody stools, systemic symptoms, and anemia, requires hospitalization and initiation of intravenous corticosteroids to induce remission.

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