A 30-year-old male is newly diagnosed with HIV infection. His CD4 count is 450 cells/mm³ and viral load is 50,000 copies/mL. He is asymptomatic and denies any opportunistic infections. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?

✓ Correct Answer: Option A

Current guidelines recommend initiating highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for all individuals diagnosed with HIV, regardless of CD4 count or viral load, to improve clinical outcomes and prevent transmission. Waiting is no longer standard. PJP prophylaxis is typically for CD4 < 200. Lumbar puncture is not routinely indicated.