A 30-year-old G1P1 woman delivers a healthy term infant vaginally. Fifteen minutes after delivery, she experiences heavy vaginal bleeding, with an estimated blood loss of 800 mL. Her uterus is boggy and enlarged, extending above the umbilicus. Her vital signs are stable. What is the most appropriate initial management step?
✓ Correct Answer: Option B
The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony. The initial management involves immediate bimanual uterine massage to stimulate contraction and administration of uterotonic agents, with oxytocin being the first-line agent due to its rapid action and safety profile.