A 28-year-old woman is found to have a CD4+ T-lymphocyte count of 150 cells/µL. She is HIV-positive and not currently on antiretroviral therapy. Which opportunistic infection prophylaxis should be initiated?

The correct answer to the question "A 28-year-old woman is found to have a CD4+ T-lymphocyte count of 150 cells/µL. She is HIV-positive and not currently on antiretroviral therapy. Which opportunistic infection prophylaxis should be initiated?" is Option C: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP).

The other options — A) Valganciclovir for cytomegalovirus (CMV), B) Azithromycin for Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC), D) Fluconazole for cryptococcal meningitis — are incorrect for this USMLE Exam Prep question. As explained above: Prophylaxis for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP) with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is indicated when the CD4 count falls below 200 cells/µL. MAC prophylaxis (azithromycin) is for CD4 < 50 cell…