A 28-year-old male presents to the ED with severe shortness of breath, audible wheezing, and is speaking in one-word sentences. His oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. He has a history of asthma and uses an albuterol inhaler daily. After initial administration of nebulized albuterol and ipratropium, his condition does not significantly improve. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
✓ Correct Answer: Option B
Systemic corticosteroids are crucial for reducing airway inflammation in severe asthma exacerbations. While bronchodilators offer immediate relief, corticosteroids address the underlying inflammation and prevent relapse. Magnesium sulfate is for refractory cases. CPAP may be considered but is not the primary next step. Intubation is for impending respiratory arrest.