A 25-year-old woman presents with persistent lower abdominal pain, abnormal vaginal bleeding, and a positive urine pregnancy test. Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. Transvaginal ultrasound shows an empty uterus and a complex adnexal mass. Her serum beta-hCG level is 3,000 mIU/mL. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
✓ Correct Answer: Option B
This patient has a suspected ectopic pregnancy. Given the stable vitals, beta-hCG of 3,000, empty uterus, and adnexal mass, methotrexate is the most appropriate initial medical management for an unruptured ectopic pregnancy.