A 25-year-old woman presents with persistent lower abdominal pain, abnormal vaginal bleeding, and a positive urine pregnancy test. Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. Transvaginal ultrasound shows an empty uterus and a complex adnexal mass. Her serum beta-hCG level is 3,000 mIU/mL. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

The correct answer to the question "A 25-year-old woman presents with persistent lower abdominal pain, abnormal vaginal bleeding, and a positive urine pregnancy test. Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. Transvaginal ultrasound shows an empty uterus and a complex adnexal mass. Her serum beta-hCG level is 3,000 mIU/mL. What is the most appropriate next step in management?" is Option B: Administer methotrexate intramuscularly.

The other options — A) Expectant management with close follow-up of beta-hCG levels, C) Perform a dilation and curettage (D&C), D) Schedule an immediate diagnostic laparoscopy — are incorrect for this USMLE Exam Prep question. As explained above: This patient has a suspected ectopic pregnancy. Given the stable vitals, beta-hCG of 3,000, empty uterus, and adnexal mass, methotrexate is the most appropriate initial medical management for an unru…