A 24-year-old sexually active woman presents with dysuria, urinary frequency, and suprapubic pain for 2 days. She denies fever, flank pain, or vaginal discharge. Urinalysis shows positive leukocyte esterase and nitrites. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

✓ Correct Answer: Option B

This patient presents with uncomplicated cystitis. TMP-SMX is a first-line agent, especially in areas with low resistance rates. Ciprofloxacin is reserved for more complicated cases or penicillin allergies. Empiric treatment is appropriate given the classic symptoms.